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  Ps. 91,   coverings in worship; 1 Corinthians 11:1f, cups in worship


ONLY ONE DIPPER

potable. cup. How designated in Bible

The human mouth is one of the most densely packed bacterial hot-spots anyone's studied … ” Popular Science.i


CUSTOM OF THE ONE DIPPER. I remember back in the 30’s and 40’s growing up in the country where we had an outside pump for our source of water. A bucket of water sit on the back porch shelf with a single dipper. All who were thirsty would drink from that one dipper. When we worked daily in the summer's 100o+ hot field "chopping cotton" in the South during the 40's,ii and later picking the cotton harvest, the sound of the cool spring water bucket with its one dipper scraping its side while being brought out by a "farm hand" was sweet music to the ears. But only one dipper! But one could reason that after all, the dipper was sometimes rinsed in the bucket of water and thrown out into the soil.


Biblical Question. Is a church supposed to share a single container (one cup) for "the fruit of the vine"iii [oinos] at the Lord's Table (communion)? Will God protect you even if you knowingly are endangering your life? What of Jesus' answer to the devil about God protecting his own when the devil quoted Psalm 91:11 (Matthew 4:6, 7)?


GITMO. While stationed in the Navy at Gitmoiv I attended services of the military's church members who met in the local radio station’s meeting room. Before services began I was talking to the radio’s DJ and discovered that he was a member of the Lord’s church. He told me that he never attended the local worship assembly on the base because he believed in using exclusively one cup for the Communion and “they” believed in multiple cups. That was my introduction to this matter for I grew up attending churches of multiple cups.


MULTIPLE "ONE CUP" BELIEVERS. I discovered later that there were around 500 "churches of Christ" in America that observe the Lord's Supper with just one cup. And, “there are more than one denomination of "one cup" believers throughout Christianity.”v


CATHOLICS, EPISCOPALIANS, AND LUTHERANS. Catholics, Episcopalians and Lutherans are among the denominations that use a single Communion cup. These groups require their serving ministers to wash their hands thoroughly before Communion, wipe the "chalice" rim thoroughly after each sip, and wash the cup with soap and hot water after each service. Others, including Presbyterians, Methodists, Baptists and many evangelical congregations, pass out individual or disposable mini-cups (at least since the last of the 19th century).


THE BIBLE AUTHORITY FOR THE CUP. The word "cup"vi in the New Testament is used to refer to literal vessel/s in the home that are to be washed (Mark 7:4,8; Luke 11:39). It is used to designate a vessel bearing a gift of cool water (Matthew 10:42; Mark 9:41). It is used as a symbol for idolatry, "cup of devils", in contrast to that of the table of Jesus (1 Corinthians 10:21). It is used figuratively for one's sufferings.vii It also is used metaphorically for its contents of the fruit of the vine shared during the last evening of the Lord with His twelve apostles (Matthew 26:28; Mark 14:23; Luke 22:20. Alexander Campbell used the term "metonomy" for the communion cup while arguing in a nineteenth century debate on the Holy Spirit's "good things."viii


POTABLE. I recall the first time I saw the word "potable"; it was on a sign during a camping trip: "potable water." I figured that it was for camper toilets. Of course the word means just the opposite. We get the word from the Greek that's translated in the Bible text as "cup." This Greek word translated "cup" is "poterion."ix In its literal application, poterion denotes simply a "drinking vessel." The "authorized" Latin Bible was translated by Jerome around 400 AD who used calix for poterion which has since developed into the word chalice which the cup definitely used by Jesus certainly was not. Perhaps Jerome would have been more helpful by translating it as Latin's "potoria" which is the generic name for "drinking vessels."x The transliteration of poterion into our English language would then be appropriately "potable" (drinkable; e.g., "drinkable water"). According to Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, the cup poterionG4221 is "by extension, the contents thereof, i.e. a cupful (draught); figuratively, a lot or fate:—cup."xi The word "cup" (poterion) was used in the NT for its contents.xii This is consistent with how Paul used it in 1 Corinthians 10 and 11 when referencing the Lord's observance of the Passover. "After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me.” (1 Corinthians 11:25). How would one drink the cup? Therefore, it was the contents.



HOW MANY PASSOVER CUPS? Did Jesus specify how the cup was to be divided or how it was to be poured? One would think that we could learn more about the dispensing by studying the Jewish Passover rules as legislated for Israel in the Old Testament or perhaps with the written Jewish Seder rituals. However, these are not helpful. It appears that the Law does not mention drinks at all for the Passover. And the Mishnah that names 4 to 5 cups in a series for the Passover was not written until a couple centuries after Jesus' ministry and the destruction of the Temple.xiii The record of the NT is all that we have.


JEWISH SEDER CUSTOMS. This is interesting. It is thought that both "Jews and Christians" were influential in reworking the borrowed Grecian banquet or symposium customs into what became Jewish "Seder" rituals required in the Mishnah and its literature.xiv In other words rather than Jesus and the twelve following a first century non-existent Jewish Mishnah for their "reclining"xv eating and drinking" (e.g., John 13:12), the Mishnah pattern appears to somewhat copy the written New Testament accounts. For example, the custom of the disciples reclining at a table is not authentic Jewish but was the Grecian custom of Jesus day. Only two cups (not the five of the later recorded Jewish Seder) of the "fruit of the vine" was used by our Lord (Luke 22:17 & 20). The "Elijah (5th) cup" of the Seder would not have been observed since Jesus earlier had identified Elijah's coming as fulfilled by the advent of John the Baptist. Plus, the nomenclature of Jesus' "fruit of the vine" (Matthew 26:29) for the drink was not "the alcoholic wine"xvi of the Mishnah's "fruit of the vine" because alcoholic wine was not authorized by the rabbis for the Passover until after the cessation of Temple services in Jerusalem.xvii


GREEK CUSTOM. If the Jews actually "Hellenized" the Passover with the Grecian customsxviii then it's reasonable to "postulate" that Jesus and the disciples from Hellenized Galilee could have likewise observed the Greek-Roman customs of sharing a "banquet" drink from a common dispensing vessel by pouring from the host drink into each one's personal cup. Whereas poterion was a generic word for drinking vessel, the ancient Greeks used different labels for each vessel, the mixing and source container and the supplied individual cups.xix It should be therefore concluded that the number of cups was incidental to the custom or perhaps was what made available by the owner of the "borrowed house" (Matthew 26:18). For us, observance of customs is subject to expediency and not commandment (1 Corinthians 11:16; 10:23). For example, there is no rule for disciples to recline while partaking of the Lord's Supper. Therefore, the number of cups would be optional.


THE CUP OF JESUS. Did the "cup" (singular) used by Jesus during the "last supper" stand for the "drink" or the vessel? Jesus "gave thanks" and said, "Drink ye all of it" (Matthew 26:27). According to Luke's account this was (1) before and (2) after dining. Thanks was given for the bread and it was then shared; Jesus "likewise [means 'thanks in the same way'] also the cup after supper" (Luke 22:20). In each case, what would Jesus have given thanks for? Was it not that which was actually to be consumed and not the container/s?


1. JESUS DIVIDED THE CONTENTS. And "Take this, and divide it among youselves" (Luke 22:17), and "they all drank of it" (Mark 14:23). Was it the contents or the container? What could be drunk or divided among them? This suggests to some that the Jesus' vessel's contents were divided into individual cups which would pattern one practice of the Grecian symposium.


2. JESUS "POURED" OUT THE SECOND. Jesus said, “This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed [literally,poured out] for you” (Luke 22:20). Was Jesus speaking incidentally or actually demonstrating by pouring the content into individual vessels? Some argue the latter. How else would Jesus words be emphasized? If the liquid actually was poured out, then it was poured into individual vessels, called kylix. The kylix cups were like our saucer but with a handle on each side. This would have been the Hellenistic custom that had influenced the Palestine people for a couple hundred years.

3. WHEN THE DEFINITE ARTICLE IS USED. Only three of the gospels give an account of the institution of the supper--Mathew, Mark, and Luke--all of which record kai labon poterion," i.e., "taking cup." The grammar rule for the original Greek text for using an indefinite article (our "a") is when the reference is to a person, animal or object that is introduced for the first time. In Luke 22:17 Jesus' “cup” is indefinite; i.e., it is introduced for the first time without the article “the” (το). It is "a" cup. But Jesus was still using that same cup for the second drink He prayed for, because in verse 20 “cup” is now a definite “and the” cup: και το ποτηριον. The same cup has been refilled with drink. This means to me that the vessel is not the paramount interest but a convenient source for the worship observance.

4. THE APOSTLE USED “CUP” SINGULAR TO REPRESENT A COMPARATIVE ACT OF WORSHIP. Using a single cup in the kingdom throughout the world is an impossibility. How long would 3000 single cup participants in Acts 2's congregation require for the “breaking of bread” and serving only one “cup”? The practice is said to have been on one day at Troas (Acts 20:7). During the apostle’s three and one-half years residence in Ephesus (Acts 19:1ff), he penned a letter to the saints in Corinth, across the Aegean Sea some 250 miles to the west. Therein he said: “The cup [singular] of blessing which we [plural, he and correspondents] bless” (1 Cor. 10:16). The designation has to be the metonomy of the practice and not a specific container. Paul and the Corinthians were separated at this moment by an estimated 250 miles. And yet distinctly different cups were being used. Even if just two congregations are using “cups” acceptably because of geography then the point must be conceded that the “cup” is not violated by multiple cups. This is accentuaged by the fact that Jesus does not place emphasis on any vessel in His command “to do.”


"CONSEQUENCES" IN “ONE CUP.” It is interesting that some that place emphasis upon a single vessel are at ease when excusing members from being exempt to the drink. Before the corona virus Priests in the Roman Catholic Diocese of Burlington, Vt., were ordered by their bishop to stop offering the Communion cup until the spring. The Archdiocese of San Francisco took similar measures during a flu outbreak. Concerns about catching a disease seem to date back to the 19th century and have spiked during epidemics, whether of diphtheria and tuberculosis in the late 1800s, polio in the first half of the 20th century or AIDS in the 1980s. Some of these same people argue that if we were to use alcoholic wine instead of grape juice the cup would be sterilized. But they ignore science because (1) alcohol has to be 70% before it kills [wine in America is generally 20% after additives and (2) the liquid would not sanitize the lip of the cup.


FINALLY, Jesus did not say, “Take one cup among you and share.” But He personally took “a” (no definite article in original) vessel translated “cup.” The next time He took it, it was identified as “the” vessel. That's characteristic of the Greek language when a thing is referred to a second time. It can legitimately be said that Jesus personally and incidentally used only one vessel in authorizing the coming kingdom's communion. But it is uncertain what happened thereafter in the dividing and (if) pouring among the twelve and their consumption. But is everything done incidentally binding in a command? If Jesus' use of one cup must be binding, so would the PLACE, an UPPER room (Mk. 14:15), the custom of RECLINING at a table, and the time at EVENING only. No, we must ask what did Jesus tell His disciples to do. In summary:


    1. This is to be done with Jesus in the Kingdom (Matthew 26:29; not in heaven* but the “reign of”). Where 2 or 3 are gathered in His name, Jesus is with them (Matthew 18:20). The church is His kingdom (Acts 2:20, He reigns; Colossians 1:13). The church comes together to properly observe it (1 Corinthians 11:20; Acts 20:7).

    2. “This do in remembrance of Me.” 1 Corinthians 11:24f.

        a. Gave thanks, brake the bread (represents His body), “Take eat.”

        b. Gave thanks, with vessel of drink (represents His blood that dedicates the New Testament- Hebrews 9:18), “Drink it.”

        c. *Shew the Lord's death till he come.” When Jesus returns it will cease because the Kingdom is “delivered up to the Father” (1 Corinthians 15:24).

    3. Sanitation was instructed by God through Moses. e.g., Lev. 11-18. Although we are under the New Testament, those laws are still for our instruction. Romans 15:4; 1 Corinthians 9:9,10; 10:11; 2 Timothy 3:16-17 (“all Scripture”).

        a. Dwellings to be cleansed,

        b. Quarantine of the sick from the assembly. Leviticus 13:46. This is especially pertinent to our study since it is expedient to protect one another from contagious germs and viruses that can be deadly.

        c. Washing after activities.

        d. Body cuttings forbidden.

        e. Wastes buried.

Meanwhile, are we to try and honor local customs (1 Corinthians 11:16) while obeying God's wise instructions for communing with one another in the Supper? In conclusion, use individual cups or clean the lip of a common cup. Be mindful of one another (Philippians 2:2).



  • Gaylon West

  • edited by Janie R. W. Ward and Mary L. J. West

THROW OUT THE LIFELINE


i “The secrets at the tip of your tongue.” Jessica Mark Welch. Popular Science, Fall, 2020, p. 98.

ii Someone wrote online that “Chopping Cotton” isn't really chopping cotton. Wrong!. When you are "chopping cotton" you of course chop down weeds that are growing along with the “baby” cotton in the rows. You would also “thin out the row” of the continuous cotton plants about a foot apart. GW..

iii Matthew 26:29.

iv Guatanamo Bay, Cuba

v http://www.gracecentered.com/christian_forums/churches-of-christ-forum/'one-cup'-church-of- christ-brethren.

vi “cup.” ποτήριονG4221 (poterion) Neuter of a derivative of the alternate of G4095; a drinking vessel; by extension the contents thereof, that is, a cupful (draught); figuratively a lot or fate: - cup. Total KJV occurrences: 33

vii “cup as 'Suffering'”: Matthew 20:22-23; 26:39, 42; Mark 10:38-39; 14:36; Luke 22:42; John 18:11; and other such metaphors: Revelation 14:10; 16:19; 17:4; 18:6.

viii Matthew 7:11; Luke 11:13 “Cup” is a figure of speech metonymy (when one thing is put for another). It stands for its contents. Does this mean that the cup did not exist; that there was just liquid. Of course not; metonomy means that it “stands for.” Illustration: “God so loved the world”; i.e., He loved the people inhabiting the world. The “world” is used to represent the inhabitants. Both exist.

ix The word "cup" is translated from the Greek noun poterionG4221, which can mean the vessel's liquid contents as well as the vessel itself. It is obvious, of course, that Jesus drank the contents, not the vessel. Poterion derives from pino, "to drink." Forerunner Commentary https://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Topical.show/RTD/cgg/ID/3039/Poterion.htm

xcup": Latin: “potoria” was the general term for "drinking vessels." https://mariamilani.com/ancient_rome/drinking-wine-in-ancient-rome.htm

xi Thayer's Greek Definitions: ποτήριον, ποτηρίου, τό (diminutive of ποτήρ), a cup, a drinking vessel; with a genitive of the thing with which the cup is filled: ψυχροῦ, Matthew 10:42; by metonymy, of the container for the contained, the contents of the cup, what is offered to be drunk, Luke 22:20b.

xii The noun ποτος (potos), means a drinking: that which is drunk (hence our English term "potable water"). The verb ποτιζω (potizo), meaning to let drink or give to drink.

... Metonymically “cup” as used for the contents of a cup, a cupful, cup of wine, spoken of the wine drunk (Luke 22:20; 1 Corinthians 10:16, "The cup of blessing"; 11:25, "this cup is the new testament"). To drink the cup (1 Corinthians 10:21, "the cup of the Lord, and the cup of devils," i.e., both the cups, whether consecrated to the Lord or devoted to idols; 11:26-28 [cf. John 4:14]). ... Metaphorically from the Hebrew meaning lot, portion, under the emblem of a cup which God presents to be drunk,

https://www.abarim-publications.com/DictionaryG/p/p-i-n-om.html#.Xwz5VihKibc

xiii https://www.myjewishlearning.com/article/rabbinic-development-of-passover/

xiv Rabbi Prof. David Golinkin.|11/04/2006. “The Origins of the Seder.” https://schechter.edu/the- origins-of-the-seder/

xv Custom of reclining to eat was Grecian-Roman influenced custom. ἀνακεῖμαιG345 anakeimai “sit down”; literally “to recline”. KJV Concordance: translated as “at” --Matt. 9:10, Matt. 26:7, Mark 16:14, Luke 7:37, Luke 7:49, John 13:27-28; “sat”, 6--Matt. 9:10, Matt. 26:7, Matt. 26:20, Mark 14:18, Mark 16:14, Luke 7:37; “down”--Matt. 26:20, John 6:11; “guests”, 2-- Matt. 22:10-11; “sitteth” --Luke 22:27; “leaning”--John 13:23; “lying”, Mark 5:40; “set”-- John 6:11; “table” --John 13:28.

xvi Jesus' role as a priest is important to the issue of whether he drank fermented wine at the Last Supper, because Jewish priests were not allowed to drink alcohol during periods of ministry (Leviticus 10:1-11). During the Last Supper, Jesus was about to offer himself on the cross for the sins of humanity (Hebrews 7:27). To consume alcohol during this time, Jesus would have been guilty of disobedience to his Father's commands, and would not have died sinlessly as our Saviour.

xvii One argued that Jesus used alcoholic wine because He said “fruit of the vine” which is the expression used in the Mishnah. But Jesus used this expression during the days while the Temple stood and the Pharisees had not yet decided to use alcoholic wine for the Passover.

xviii When, therefore, he washed their feet, and took his garments, having reclined (at meat) again, he said to them, `Do ye know what I have done to you?” (John 13:12, YLT; see Matthew 2 16:20). Vincent's: “Literally, having reclined. The guests reclined on couches, lying on the left side and leaning on the left hand. The table was in the hollow square or oblong formed on three sides by the couches, the fourth side being open, and the table extending beyond the ends of the couches.” Sources differ as to origin of Jews' reclining at meals but all agree that it was practiced by Greeks, Romans, and even the Persians and then Jews. http://www.tyndalearchive.com/Scriptures/www.innvista.com/scriptures/compare/recline.htm

xix https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symposium.

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