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Answer:
Unfortunately, ever since the "Tower of Babel", communication has been a problem between people (Genesis 11). I Corinthians 14 admonishes us to make certain that our understanding is conveyed to the listeners (e.g., I Corinthians 14:15-20). However, in our zeal, we speakers may not clearly separate our interpretations, application, and/or comments from our facts.
Sometimes, I believe we as listeners are just as guilty and do not distinguish but melt opinions into the facts and assume what has not been said.
Look at an English dictionary:
| grace (gr³s) n. 1. Seemingly effortless beauty or charm of movement, form, or proportion. 2. A characteristic or quality pleasing for its charm or refinement. 3. A sense of fitness or propriety. 4.a. A disposition to be generous or helpful; goodwill. b. Mercy; clemency. 5. A favor rendered by one who need not do so; indulgence. 6. A temporary immunity or exemption; a reprieve. 7. Graces. Greek & Roman Mythology. Three sister goddesses, known in Greek mythology as Aglaia, Euphrosyne, and Thalia, who dispense charm and beauty. 8. Theology. a. Divine love and protection bestowed freely on people. b. The state of being protected or sanctified by the favor of God. c. An excellence or a power granted by God. 9. A short prayer of blessing or thanksgiving said before or after a meal. 10. Grace. Used with His, Her, or Your as a title and form of address for a duke, a duchess, or an archbishop. 11. Music. An embellishment such as an appoggiatura or a trill. --grace tr.v. graced, grac·ing, grac·es. 1. To honor or favor. 2. To give beauty, elegance, or charm to. 3. Music. To embellish with grace notes. --idioms. in the bad graces of. Out of favor with. in the good graces of. In favor with. with bad grace. In a grudging manner. with good grace. In a willing manner.[American Heritage Dictionary] |
Now an modern English dictionary is supposed to depict how the word "grace" is being used currently by English speaking people. One quickly notices, however, the absence of the word "unmerited". It isn't there in this dictionary unless the authors meant it by the word "given freely".
I did find the word "unmerited" added in sections of English dictionaries under the heading "Christian theology"; e.g., Webster's Dictionary college edition gives as the meaning of grace, in "theology": to be "God's unmerited love and favor." Webster's Dictionary and any English dictionary does not give the inspired meaning of Words from God through His Word, but from man, and his traditions of professed, false, Christianity. Both Calvinism and Armenianism base their teachings on this definition. Christ warns all believers to beware of the traditions of men, and their commandments, Matthew 15:9.
But our question should be, how is it really used in the Bible in reference to God and man. Here again we notice the absence of the word "unmerited".
LEXICOGRAPHERS' TESTIMONY Greek dictionaries:
Note: the New Testament was written in Greek.
Grace charis- acceptable, benefit, favour, gift, grace (-ious), joy liberality, pleasure, thank (-s, -worthy).(Strong's Greek)
Grace
(a) objective: "that which bestows or occasions pleasure, delight, or causes favorable regard;"
(b) subjective: "...Divine favor or grace." (Vine's) |
Joseph H. Thayer (an important Greek lexicographer) made some significant observations concerning the meaning of charis:
"that which affords joy, pleasure, delight, sweetness, charm, loveliness... good-will, loving-kindness, favor".
Thayer's and Strong's Greek dictionaries never uses "undeserved" or "unmerited" for charis (the Greek word translated either as
"grace" or "favor").
ETYMOLOGY TESTIMONY
"The English roots of charisma are in this divine sense, entering English in the mid-1600s via ecclesiastical (of the church) Latin from (according to the OED) the Greek kharisma, from kharis, meaning 'grace' or 'favour' - a favour or grace or gift given by God."
-- http://www.businessballs.com/charisma.htm
charis [grace, favour] -- World English Dictionary
charis "grace, beauty, kindness," --Word Origin & History
--- http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/charisma
Etymology: From Ancient Greek (charisma) "grace, favour, gift" (charizomai) "I show favor" from (charis) "grace" from (chairÅ) "I am happy"
--http://www.allwords.com/word-charisma.html
BIBLE TRANSLATORS' TESTIMONY:
CHARIS is translated not only as grace or favor but is rendered as "benefit" once in 2 Corinthians 1:15 (KJV).
It is translated as "acceptable" in 1 Peter 2:19,20, "liberality" in 1 Corinthians 16:3 (KJV), "pleasure" in Acts 24:27; 25:9, "bounty" in 1 Corinthians 16:3 (RV), and "thank" in several such as Luke 6:32,33,34; 17:9; Romans 6:17 (RV); 1 Corinthians 15:57; 1 Timothy 1:12; 2 Timothy 1:3; 1 Peter 2:29. Never is it translated as "unmerited." It takes someone
inclined to add to the Scriptures to falsely do such a thing.
The verb CHARITOO ("to endue with Divine favor or grace" - Vine's, p. 171) is translated as "hath made... accepted" (KJV) and "freely bestowed" (RV).
The noun CHARISMA ("a gift of grace" - Vine's p. 147) is translated "gift" in such passages as Romans 6:23; 1 Corinthians 7:7; 12:4, 9, 28, 30, 31.
Our English word "gift (n.)" according to etymonline.com basically means from the 13th century "that which is given."
I have not found a translation that uses "unmerited" by any scholars at all.
I have been told that we have to understand that there are nuances for Greek words as well as English words.
I humbly ask for the passage that is translated by any scholar as a nuance of "unmerited favor". Note: The Amplified Bible
adds as their commentary note [not as a translation] in parenthesis "unmerited" (Ephesians 2:8). Commentaries are generally men's thoughts on a subject.
I recently was told the argument "But I've always have been taught..." That argument doesn't make anything correct. If you are a preacher and you are preaching by that reasoning then you ought to be ashamed of yourself! Shouldn't you be doing like the Bereans and see if what you have been taught is correct? People are being misled by charismatic jargon and innuendos. Should we be reinforcing the errors?
MEANING OF "GRACE" What it does NOT mean. It does NOT mean "mercy". I've heard preachers and teachers say it meant "mercy." And hence, "unmerited." It does not mean "love". It does not mean "wisdom". It does not mean "sin" nor "righteousness" (exaggerating for the point). Neither does grace mean "unmerited favor"!
It cannot mean "unmerited" in the case with Jesus.
Luke 2 : 52, "And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men." Jesus "increased" IN FAVOR with God and man. The Greek word translated "IN FAVOR" is charis (translated "grace" in other places). Did Jesus not merit the grace of God? Did Jesus not merit the grace of man? Obviously, the answer is that Jesus certainly would be one to merit any favor.
Although one may argue that God's grace is "unmerited" by sinful men, it would never apply to Jesus. The word cannot mean "unmerited" in Jesus' sake.
It cannot mean "unmerited" in the case with Christians who are washed in the precious blood of Jesus (Revelation 1:5).
2 Peter 3:17, 18,
"You therefore, beloved, since you know this beforehand, beware lest you also fall from your own steadfastness, being led away with the error of the wicked;
but grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. To Him be the glory both now and forever" -
(NKJV). Observe that growing in God's grace is put in contrast to "the error of the wicked" but is synonymous with "steadfastness"! As Christians, bought and paid for by Jesus, are commanded to do something as God's workmanship. They are to grow in the grace!
So the question becomes, "When would the Bible ever apply 'charis' [grace] to the sinner?"
"UNMERITED" DOES APPLY TO THE SINNER but does "favor" refer to the sinnere? They do not merit God's favor (compare to the world in which Noah lived). Should it not, if sinners are saved by "unmerited favor"?
Romans 3:23, "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;"
Romans 3:12, "They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable;G889 there is none that doeth good, no, not one."
G889 (translated "unprofitable") is "from G888: 'useless, that is, (euphemistically [substitution for]) unmeritorious:'"
: : IN THE CONTEXT of Romans 3:12 the word "unprofitable" is used to describe man's sins (works or deeds).
All have sinned and all are literally, "unmerited" while in their sins. Their deeds are without merit before God.
If "grace" saves and "grace" were "unmerited" then God would be obligated to save everyone or else be biased in saving anyone (the denominations recognize this and come up with added error to rectify their initial error). For God's grace has appeared to all men (Titus 2:10-13).
But the apostle says that God favors the workers of righteousness (not the unrighteous)!
Acts 10:34-35, "Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons; But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him."
Old Testament examples
(The Old Testament was written in Hebrew but the source of the translated word "grace" has the same meaning as the Greek).
Genesis 6:8,9 " But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD. This is the genealogy of Noah. Noah was a just man, perfect in his generations. Noah walked with God." Out of all mankind, Noah found grace in the eyes of the Lord. Don't tell me that Noah's favor was unmerited. He "walked with God"; he was "perfect" in his generations. Was he sinless ? It doesn't say that. We know he offered sacrifices and we know that
sacrifices were associated with forgiveness of sins. But whatever he was doing, he found favor in the eyes of the Lord.
Exodus 34:9 ' Then he said, "If now I have found grace in Your sight, O Lord, let my Lord, I pray, go among us, even though we are a stiff-necked people; and pardon our iniquity and our sin, and take us as Your inheritance."'
What was Moses' request? "If I have found grace in Your sight". If the word meant "unmerited" why would He ask God to pardon the stiff-necked people and sinners in the congregation because of his having God's grace. Why even ask for forgiveness for the people if all it took was a "unmerited" favor of God. The word does not mean "unmerited", that's why. Moses had merited God's favor. And he was selected to be the mediator for the people.
Esther 2:17 "The king loved Esther more than all the other women, and she obtained grace and favor in his sight more than all the virgins; so he set the royal crown upon her head and made her queen instead of Vashti."
"The king loved Esther more than the other women", and she obtained grace in his sight. Does that mean that Esther looked just like the other women. Or even worse? Hence, the king would have "unmerited" favor with her? Obviously, no. She had qualities that in his eyes the others did not possess. She had his favor!
AN OXYMORON
People use the word "oxymoron" to refer to contradictions.
Now here is the oxymoron. To say "Roman Catholic" is an oxymoron. Rome is local; but catholic is worldwide. Contradiction of terms. An oxymoron. The point is not whether it's Scriptural or not. Just an illustration for the meaning of the word.
Here's another one, is it not? "Unmerited favor" of God. "Unmerited" means "unprofitable"; i.e., sinning. "Favor" for sinning? Also an oxymoron. Unless one means that God actually is favoring sin. If God's grace that saves is "unmerited favor" that is offered to mankind then all men are saved --period. All qualify for such a judgment. This goes against the very heart of the teaching of the gospel.
Isn't this ridiculous. And yet we wink at such nonsense from the pulpit. We are particular about "baptism" being used correctly. But we say that "grace" can be perverted. No wonder people get confused over the plan of salvation and what God expects of us. People leave the "church" (they say) because we don't preach enough on "grace". What do they mean? They want to hear more about "unmerited favor" of God.
Either you don't deserve it but you get it anyway or such a teaching of "unmerited favor" is a lie like the devil used in the garden of Eden. Please see the consequences of such a doctrine.
Proverbs 3:34 (Old Testament) "Surely he scorneth the scorners: but he giveth grace unto the lowly."
1 Peter 5:5 "be clothed with humility, for 'God resists the proud, But gives grace to the humble.'"
Why doesn't God give grace to the scornful or the proud?
Certainly they "undeserve" it more in this context than the humble (i.e., if it means "unmerited [undeserved] favor").
James 4:6 "But He gives more grace. Therefore He says: "God resists the proud, But gives grace to the humble."
Luke 17:10 "So likewise you, when you have done all those things which you are commanded, say, 'We are unprofitable servants. We have done what was our duty to do.'
This is a verse that some use to justify adding "unmerited" to the definition of "grace". However, God is not saying "if you do everything you are supposed to, you are unprofitable (unmerited)" but that we should say that we are. Does this not confirm the requirement of humility? This rather underscores the fact that we are to "do" something! Again, we are not to certainly consider obedience as sin (like the sinners [unprofitable] in Romans 3); we have been washed in the blood of the Lamb and we walk in the Light do like God says for us to do (1 John 1:7-10). But we have done what God requires.
Although man is condemned to die from the sin in the Garden, God's MERCY has provided a plan of salvation for our salvation in Christ (Ephesians 1:3). If we follow God's plan (grace, pleasure), we have nothing to be arrogant about; we have done what we were supposed to do. Humility in man is what God has favor toward. It is God that deserves the praise and the glory (Ephesians 1)! |
This is my point:
THE WORD "GRACE" DID NOT THEN, NEITHER DOES IT NOW MEAN "'UNMERITED' FAVOR". The one that is doing what pleases God (such as, the humble) receives the favor of God (His grace)rather than the proud and scornful. God makes promises to the humble. When a person is humble then he deserves and merits God's favor (1 Peter 1:4). To say that grace means "unmerited" makes it difficult to teach that we are to be humble. It may be comforting to some that grace means that we can not do anything to merit His favor, but I'm afraid that if there is a Judgment there will be a lot of us disappointed on Judgment Day. That's why we hear the comments, such as, "I'll just have to wait and trust on God's grace to save me."
Someone might say that this is just semantics. But the Word of God is delivered in words. And to the best of our ability, we must follow Scripturally the message and not violate the language in so doing. Else how can we all "speak the same thing" (1 Cor. 1:10)?
Some well meaning teachers say "But I feel that since we are sinners, we don't deserve God showing any mercy, any love, or any favors to us." This is something that we all can appreciate when we consider the hideousness of sin. But can we legitimately redefine terms to match our feelings? If we can then, any word can be changed according to the temperament of the moment. When we arbitrarily change word meanings in one passage it will color our interpretation of similar passages. Soon we either are all confused or we form our divided groups of "thinking." For example, the preacher argues that if we have to be baptized "like the eunuch in Acts 8", the eunuch in Acts 8 was in a desert, and Philip surely had to use a bottle of water to baptize him. Therefore a "nuance" of baptism becomes "sprinkling." I understand this flawed argument has been made.
CAIN, son of man (Adam) In closing, let me refer the reader to the passage in Genesis 4:5-7. We are familiar with Cain. It is NOT said that Cain was born into any Adamic inherited sin. God doesn't send the Spirit to make Cain do right. Rather, God describes two choices laid before him (also see Ezekiel 18:19-21). One has God's favor, "acceptance" (hence, grace! since grace also means acceptable - see above); the other does not.
(Genesis 4:5-7) 'but He did not respect Cain and his offering. And Cain was very angry, and his countenance fell. So the LORD said to Cain, "Why are you angry? And why has your countenance fallen? "If you do well, will you not be accepted? And if you do not do well, sin lies at the door. And its desire is for you, but you should rule over it."' (NKJV)
Cain would be accepted or rejected on his choice. Since "grace" also means "acceptable", Cain would have had God's grace (been acceptable) if he had done what God wanted.
What does that have to do with us under the New Testament? It confirms that the argument of men being "unworthy" has nothing to do with God's grace; he will be acceptable by doing what God wants (see also Hebrews 11:4)!
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