Two subsequent audiences in
Jerusalem (Acts 2:6ff and 3:11ff) are similarly accused as murdering
the Christ. They have the blood of the Son of God on their hands.i
Peter gives one reason for obeying the Spirit that's directing his
first sermon in Acts 2:38, but he gives three reasons for obeying
Jesus in Acts 3:19. However, in the second sermon there is no
mention of either being baptized or receiving the gift of the Holy
Spirit.
The first audience in Acts
2:37 admitted guilt by pleading, “What shall we do?” He
answers them, “Repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus
Christ for the remission of sins and you shall receive the gift of
the Holy Spirit.” We would expect Peter to be consistent
and give the same commands to the second group. However, his
commands appear to be different in Acts 3:19 where Peter demands
repentance but says nothing about any baptism. This difference has
led some to ignore Acts 2:38 altogether and argue that baptism is
unnecessary for salvation. This is their conclusion in spite of the
fact that Acts 2:38 says it is.
But at the same time, Peter
also says nothing about the second group taking hold of “the
gift of the Holy Spirit.” Therefore, by
the same token, could one not argue that the Holy Spirit is
not necessary since any reference to the Spirit
is also absent? Surely
such a position would be obvious as ludicrous.
INTO SALVATION.
1. First command is common
to both sermons (Acts 2:38; 3:19). “Repent” is the
same requirement and same
word in both accounts: aorist
imperative active: means “to change one’s mind”
(Thayer's Greek Definitions).
2.
Second command, respectively, is “Be
baptized” (only in Acts 2:38)and “Be converted” (only in Acts
3:19).
Peter
asserts that#1 and #2 actions are required for
the removal of sins.
How
to get from point A to point B?
A=murderers.
B= believers.
From
Bloody Handsto
Holy
Hands
(1
Timothy 2:8).
“Even
as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it; That
he might sanctify and
cleanse it
with the washing of
water by (en)the word (rhema),ii
That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having
spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and
without blemish” (Ephesians
5:25-27).
The
Servantiii
of God (“Son” KJV)
is murdered for the believers
(cf., believers called “church”
in Acts
5:11). By His death, Jesus
sanctifies (“makes holy”- Strong's)
and cleanses with washing (“total bath,” fig., baptism-
Strong's)
“in the saying”
(Young's Literal Translation).
“In the saying”:
the Saying
of God authorizes
baptism (in
the Word,
KJV).
There's no reason
to dismissing
baptism
even if Peter didn't specifically use the command
“be baptized”
before he and
John were
interrupted and taken
away by the authorities.
During the first sermon, the
apostles were not interrupted in Acts 2. “And with many
other words did he (Peter)
testify and exhort” (Acts 2:40).
However,
Peter
and John are interrupted by the officials of the Sadducees in
Acts 3 and
are taken away because they preached the resurrection.
Since
the sermon had just begun, the
audience never had a chance to be
convicted and admit
guilt. This may explain why Peter seemingly
uses
the
more
general
but inclusive
command,
“Be
converted”
in Acts 3:19.
3.
What About
“Be
Converted”?Comparing
the command to Acts 2:38 suggests
that being converted is equivalent to being baptized. However, the
two are not correlated either
by definition
or grammatically.
Definition.
“Converted”
is
not the
same thing as belief.
E.g.,
“A
great number believed and turned(converted)
unto the Lord”
(Acts 11:21).
It,
like
“repent”,
means
to “turn”, but
more
properly,
“to
return to a path from which one has gone astray.” The
commentator Barnessays
that
its
use is
a general sense of
denoting
“the whole turning to God.”iv
Repent is to turn away from sins. To convert is to make a complete
turn
around.
Along
with “repent”, being
converted
will “wipe away your sins.”
Grammatically.
This
verb “be converted” is anactiveverb.v
It is something to
do
and not be done to. In contrast, “be baptized” in Acts
2:38 is a passive verb. “Being baptized” is having
someone immerse you. At
any rate, would the audience have
understood
that they were to be baptized simply from this word?
I
think not.
They
would have been familiar with the word from
their GreekBible
(OT)(Psalm
19:7; 51:13).
They
would
determine that their lives would have to be completely “turned
around”
toward
God.
“The law of the
LORD is perfect, converting
the soul”
(Psalm 19:7a).
The instructed among
the audience would have
known
this psalm and would have known that the Law of the Lord that
converts the soul was God's Word (Isaiah 8:20). His
Law included His testimony
and His commandments.
They would know that
Peter meant to give heed to his authenticated (by the miracle)
instructions.
The audience would know that the Law and the Word are synonymous. “To the law and to
the testimony! if they speak not according
tothis
word(rhemaG4487,
LXX), surely
it is because there is no light in them”
(Isaiah 8:20).
Understanding
that “getting the gift of the Holy Spirit” in Acts 2:38
was getting or receiving the Word of God, we can readily understand
that the “be baptized and seize the gift of the Holy Spiri”
would have been included in this broad and inclusive command “be
converted.” Therefore, there is no contradiction between the
two sermons. One is explanatory of the other. After all, the Acts 2
sermon was not interrupted like the Acts 3 sermon.
SUGGESTION
ON BAPTISM.viOf
course, the design of NT baptism initiates a renewal of purpose in
one's
life just
as “be converted” indicates.
“Therefore
we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was
raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also
should walk
in newness of life”
(Romans 6:4). Peter's
use of the special wording, “wipe away sins”, suggests a
complete washing.vii Hence,
baptism would not
be
a
contradiction
and would
have been reasonably
understood
if
pointed out to them.
So
where would
they learn specifically
that
repentance was to be followed by having
themselves
baptized?
Needless
to say, this audience was not on an isolated island. There
would have been the
other available
apostles
(besides
Peter and John) and
the
currentbelievers
in Jerusalem ready to “expound
unto [them] the way of God more perfectly”(Acts
18:26) so
that they could be added to their
community.
“And
the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved”
(Acts
2:47).
- Gaylon West
THROW OUT THE
LIFELINE
Other articles in this series, The Gift of the Holy Spirit: >
http://www.BibleStudyLessons.net/articles
i
It is true that these persons may have been in Jerusalem at the
Passover when Jesus was killed, but it is also true that all have
sinned (Romans 3:23) and are guilty of Jesus having to die because
we sin (Hebrews 6:6; James 2:10).
ii
Rhema is interchangeable with logos in certain cases. “He
that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words (rhema), hath one that
judgeth him: the word (logos) that I have spoken, the same shall
judge him in the last day” (John 12:48).
iii
“Servant” pais, not huios (son); this
word is the LXX term for the Messianic child or servant in Isaiah
42:1; 52:13. Used also for David (Luke 1:69; Acts 4:25).
iv
ἐπιστρέψατε
epistrepsate does not denote passivity may be clearly seen by
referring to the following places where the same form of the word is
used: Matthew 24:18; Mark 13:16; Luke 17:31; 1Thessalonians 1:9.
-Barnes.
v
“A false idea is given in the Common Version by making it
passive.”- PNT,
vi
The Ethiopic version adds, "and be baptized"; see Gill's
commentary on Acts 2:38.
viiexaleiphōG1813.
Thayer Definition: 1) to anoint or wash in every
part.