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OF GODS AND JUDGES

Please comment on John 10:34.

John 10:34, “Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your law, 'I said, "Ye are gods" '? ”

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THE JOHN 10:34 PASSAGE IN CONTEXT.

AFV translation has the following context: [the audience wants to stone Jesus; He asked them, “For which good work that I've done?”

John 10:33, The Jews answered Him, saying, "We will not stone You for a good work, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a man, are making Yourself God."'

John 10:34, “Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your law, 'I said, "You are gods"'?

John 10:35, “If He called them gods, to whom the Word of God came (and the Scriptures cannot be broken),

John 10:36, “Why do you say of Him Whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?

 

The Jewish audience told Jesus they wanted to stone Him for blasphemy because He was saying that He was the Son of God. Jesus points out their contradiction. He quotes “their” law. The very Law they were using to condemn Him had used “gods” for men; specifically, Jesus said that the Scripture referred to the recipients (Jews) of the Law as “gods.” There are at least three things to consider. (1) The word “law.” (2) The word “god.” (3) The word “judges.”

 

WHAT LAW (Greek, nomosG3551)?Is it not written in your law.” In the gospel accounts Jesus identifies the Old Testament as “the” or “your” law.[i] We can safely say that during His earthly ministry Jesus referred to the Old Testament Scriptures then as “The Law” [nomos]. This would refer to any part or to all of it, i.e., the Pentateuch, the Prophets and/or the Psalms. In John 10:34 Jesus quotes the part of the Scriptures called Psalms. Specifically, Psalm 82. He identified it as Jewish since He said your Law to the Jewish audience.

 

YE ARE GODS. For John 10 and its Psalm quote, it is important to know what the Biblical word “god” actually meant. If God in Psalm 82 called a congregation of men “gods,” Jesus asks, “why are you condemning me for using it for myself?” Jesus used His works as proof of who He was. His confession should not have condemned Him.

In modern English, the word “god” has several meanings. Merriam-Webster [online] defines it as (1) “the supreme or ultimate reality, (2) a being or object that is worshipped as having supernatural powers, (3) a person or thing of supreme value, and (4) a powerful ruler. Compare with how we use heavenly words. We adore the English word “angel” and use it figuratively with affection, but we do not mean that she's actually a super being. I respect our word for the Greek Theos God and perhaps due to its use in cursing, I want to use it respectfully and use it only to refer to Jehovah God. But the word is not limited to this, in English or Greek (or Hebrew).

The Greek word for God or god was “theosG2316.” This term apparently was used for those in authority; particularly the Eternal Theos. Thayer's Greek Definitions defines it as “deities, the trinity, His things, and whatever can in any respect be likened to God even [human] magistrates and judges.” Strong's Hebrew and Greek Dictionary says this Greek word was used occasionally for “a deity, especially (with a definite article “the”) the supreme Divinity; [but] figuratively by way of deference to magistrates; by Hebraism very: -translated as “exceeding, God, god [-ly, -ward], great, judges, mighty.” The Hebrew equivalent was “elohimH430” and according to Strong's meant “gods in the ordinary sense but especially when used with the article, of the Supreme God”; but “occasionally [was] applied with deference to magistrates, e.g., “great, judges, mighty'.”

The latter use of “gods” would have indeed been applicable to the judges in the Old Testament. Especially would this be true for those inspired by God (such as Deborah). But Psalms is using it for those authorized inheritors of the Seat of Judgment. Jesus quoted the Psalm that refers to God's authorized judges as “gods.” His use of the Psalm not only exonerated Jesus but actually assures us that the Psalm was using “gods” to refer to human beings. Otherwise, it would not have been relative to the situation in John 10.

Jesus uses the OT reference to counter their hypocrisy and deviousness. Jesus was literally the Son of God, yet they used His confession flippantly to condemn Him even though they were using “god” figuratively and commonly in their daily lives.

WERE THE GODS ANGELS? An interpretation of the mighty (gods) as being the fallen angels of Jude is contrary to correct exegesis. First of all, observe that Jesus was countering the Jews condemnation of His use of “god.” If Psalm 82 was actually calling super beings “gods”, it could not defend Jesus. Jesus used the Psalm rather to prove that humans could be addressed as gods if they were appointed by divine decree.

“YE ARE CHILDREN OF GOD.” Also, the use of “children of God” in the Psalm is a common term for God's creation that were created to obey God and would not refer to anyone contrary or disobedient, particularly fallen angels. For example, Christians are designated as children of God. Galatians 3:26, “For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.” [GW1] The children of God in the OT were the covenant children of Israel: Deuteronomy_14:1, “Ye are the children of the LORD your God.” But such could and did fall from God's grace: “And the children of Israel did evil in the sight of the LORD, and forgat the LORD their God, and served Baalim and the groves” (Judges 3:7).

THE CHILDREN OF GOD in Genesis.

The “sons of God” also in Genesis 6 cannot be fallen angels. It is reasonable to conclude that they were the children of Seth and Enos who originally “began to call upon the name of the Lord” (Genesis 4:26). But by the time of Noah, they (who lived as close to 1000 years before dying) were already changing their interests from God to the “daughters of men” (Genesis 6:4).[ii] Sin became rampant not because of any angels but of the evil influence of the “daughters of men” (of Cain's, etc.). The word Nephilim in that context apparently is from the Hebrew naphal which means “the fallen ones.” As a side issue, the later Nephilim of Canaan could not have originated in Genesis 6. Those “men” in Genesis 6 did not survive the flood. All had become “fallen ones” and were destroyed. Only 8 souls were saved (1 Peter 3:20) from the Flood.

WERE THE PSALM GODS JUST HUMAN “JUDGES”? The context of the quoted psalm. V.1, God standeth in the congregation of the mighty (the word is gods; plural of theos in the LXX)”; He [Jehovah God, theos] judgeth among the gods (theos).” Psalm 82:2. How long will ye [the gods] judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.”  Whoever the gods were, they were judging unjustly and judging in favor of the wicked. Hence, they were “mighty” (gods) in that they were judges of men. Their assignment had been (in verse 3, etc.) to defend the poor and fatherless: to do justice to the afflicted and needy.  But they were in darkness; consequently, they would die like men, and fall like one of the princes.” For God is the Judge of all including the mighty ones who judge among the peoples.

ALL JUDGES ARE AUTHORIZED BY GOD. Paul says that men's governing authorities (not dunamis, such as “power” of miracles) are ordained of God. Our command is to be in submission to the authorities (exousia--Strong's definition is “concretely magistrate, superhuman, potentate, token of control”). They judge us temporarily as gods in the stead for the Eternal God. “For he is a servant of God to you for good. But if you are practicing evil, have fear! For he does not wear the sword in vain because he is a servant of God, an avenger for wrath to the one who is practicing evil” (Romans 13:4).

RIGHTEOUS JUDGING. The only acceptable judgment for anyone with or without power is righteous judgment (John 7:24). This would apply to us as we judge others. We must intercede for the defenseless ones, the unborn, the abused, the forgotten, those in war zones, family members with no one but the Lord to help. We are to be those that rescue and not those disobedient gods who forsook righteousness by giving favor to the corruption.

Finally, let's judge Jesus for who He is: TRULY GOD, the Son of the Eternal Father in Heaven.

 



[i] (1) “the law, prophets and psalms” (Luke 24:44), (2) “the law and the prophets” (Matthew 5:17; 7:12; 11:13; 22:40; Luke 16:16; and John 1:45), (3) “law of Moses” (Luke 2:22; John 1:17; 7:23), (4) “the law of the Lord” (Luke 2:23; 2:24; 2:39; 5:17), (5) “the law” (Matthew 5:18; 12:5; 22:36; ; 23:23; Luke 2:27; 10:26; 16:17; (2 times) John 7:19, 49; 8:5; 12:34), (6) “your law” (John 8:17; 10:34; 15:25; 18:31), (7) “our law” (John 7:51, 19:7 [2]). The word for “law” in these passages is always nomos (G3551) and refers to the Old Testament. This use of G3551 continues throughout the book of Acts and Epistles except for its replacement, the Law of Christ (Romans 8:2; Galatians 6:2). Be aware that the word “sue thee at the “law'” in Matthew 5:40 is not nomos but krinoG2919 which means arbitration or to decree; hence, it's referring to judgment in man's law court.

[ii] An example of disobedient people: Genesis 11:5, “And the LORD came down to see the city and the tower, which the children of men builded.


 [GW1]

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