Signs of the apostles; "the believers of Mark 16:17

The KJV text is very close to the Greek in Mark 16.ⁱⁱⁱ Those of us that believe the Bible to be inspired believe that the Holy Spirit used the language properly in every context. If so, then the plural “them” (or its plural participle in Greek) in verse 17 cannot refer to the singular “he that” (singular participle in Greek) in verse 16. We must search in the preceding Biblical context for its plural noun/pronoun antecedent in accordance with the pronoun rule.

Jesus: the context actually begins in verse 9. I would start there because it is there that the context’s singular “he” has its antecedent noun, “Jesus”; the words “he” in this context always refers back to Jesus except in verse 16 where Jesus is speaking; this “he” does not refer to Himself. [Jesus would refer to Himself as “I” or “me.”] The “he” in verse 16 refers to the singular and masculine “believing and baptized one.”

Mary Magdalene: The only feminine singular pronouns [“she” and “her”] in the context refer back to Mary.

Them That Had Been With Him: Now the plural “they” (“them”, “ye”) in this context always refers to the common antecedent “them that had been with Him”, later, “two of them”, and finally, “the eleven.” “The eleven” in verse 14 is the closest plural/masculine antecedent for “them” of verse 17. ^iv The singular/masculine “he” of verse 16 ^v is not eligible and cannot be the antecedent.

10 And she (Mary) went and told them P that had been with Him, as they P mourned and wept. 11 And they P , when they P had heard that he P was alive, and had been seen of herSF, believed not.

“Them”, plural and masculine, has as its antecedent the accompanying cataphoric English relative clause^vi “that had been with Him.” Verse 11: The “they’s” of verse 11 are the same as the verse 10’s “they that had been with Him”. The “they” were “unbelieving.”

12 After that he appeared in another form unto two of them P , as they P walked, and went into the country. 13 And they P went and told it unto the residue P : neither believed they P them P .

The “they” are the two of verse 12’s “of them”. The “residue” are the remainder of the “them” of verse 10. The next “they” references the “residue.” The final “them” refers to the “they two.” The residue (they that were close to Jesus) “neither believed them.”

14 Afterward he S appeared unto the eleven as they P sat at meat, and upbraided them PM with their PM unbelief and hardness of heart, because they PM believed not themPM which had seen him S after he S was risen. S=singular; P=plural.

Jesus reproaches “them” because of their unbelief. Who are the “them”? The apostles. Jesus reprimands “their” “unbelief” because they believed not the witnesses. - Compare to Jesus’ statement to Thomas in John 20:29.

Verse 15, 16: The eleven are commanded to go and preach. “Ye” in verse 15 are the eleven.

Verse 17: Something will follow those (no doubt of the “ye”) that should believe.

2. Consistent in the context of their failing to believe: they that had been with Jesus.

Jesus had taught the apostles to expect the resurrection (Matthew 16:21). Yet when witnesses had told them the truth, they refused to believe. It is now reasonable that Jesus would point out that signs would be the friend to those of His apostles that believe. Jesus wants them, themselves first to believe.

19 So then after the Lord had spoken unto them P, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God. 20 And they P went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them P, and confirming the word with signs following.

In verse 19 the “Lord had spoken to” the plural “them”. Who did He speak to? Is it not the apostles? He is received into Heaven.

By the rule, the plural “them” and “they” in verses 19 & 20 have to refer to the preceding plural noun/pronoun in verses 17 & 18. Yet we are told that the Lord had spoken to these “them.” Who did He speak to? Answer: The Apostles.^vii Hence, “them” in all verses have to refer to the audience of the apostles in verse 14.

3. The only plural antecedent for “them” would be the “ye” or the “eleven”; the text declares that the “them” of all these verses was the apostles. It is the apostles that must obey the command “Go ye” and if there were still be any question, the inspired writer says the Lord worked with “them”, the “eleven”, the apostles, with accompanying signs. Mark does not deal with the specifics of prophets and helpers that the Holy Spirit gives the apostles. So the passages referencing such are not relevant.

Verse 20 clarifies the whole matter of verses 17 & 18. The Lord promised to them signs. The eleven must have believed because the Lord worked with the eleven with accompanying signs.

Why are the “signs” called “the signs of the apostles”? “Truly the signs of an apostle were wrought among you in all patience, in signs, and wonders, and mighty deeds” (2 Corinthians 12:12). The signs proved the authority of the apostles. Hence, Paul argued, see: I have the apostolic signs given directly to me. Therefore, accept me as an apostle! All miraculous gifts were distributed through the apostles by the Holy Spirit through the laying on of their hands. (1 Corinthians 12:4ff; Acts 8:14-18; 19:5, 6).

PostScript: Out of all commentaries that I investigated, only the two mentioned below dealt with the antecedent rule for the plural “them” in verses 17. All others ignored the rule and only elaborated on their creed biases although all did admit that signs did not continue beyond the first century (when, I would say, the apostles died and their hands lay in the grave). They do not explain why Jesus did not add that signs would only last during the first century. The Holy Spirit still lives through the confirmed word that was preached by them, confirmed, and now is written down.

Coffman’s: “Them that believe … The antecedent of "them" is "the eleven themselves" (Mark 16:14); and the only way this can be avoided is to change the singular pronouns in Mark 16:15-16 into plural pronouns contrary to the Greek text. There is nothing difficult in this interpretation, since it is simply basic English.^viii

People’s NT: “Perhaps the plural {them} does not have for its antecedent the singular {he} in Mark 16:16, but the plural {them} in Mark 16:14. If it does not, why is the number changed in Mark 16:15-16 ? The grammatical construction requires us to look to Mark 16:14 for the antecedent of {them} in Mark 16:17. In Mark 16:14 the apostles are "upbraided for their unbelief because they believed not them who had seen him after he had arisen." They are commanded to go and tell the glad story, and assured that miraculous credentials shall be given to those of "them who believe" and tell the wonderful tidings”.^ix

i Called an anaphora (e.g., cataphoric antecedent) in linguistics. Rather than “ante” (before), it is afterwards in clause.

http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=anaphor. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cataphora.

ii http://www.motorera.com/greek/lessons/lesson10.html

iii Although, in the Greek, instead of English adjectival clauses in verses 16 and 17 the Spirit uses Greek participles. The English “he” of verse 16 is actually, a nominative verbal πιστευσας^G4100; i.e.,“believing one”.

ivΤοις ενδεκα (the indeclinable number “eleven” has the plural and masculine article tοις ).

vThe difference between the Greek and English is that in the Greek the “he” is understood in a participle (e.g., “believing one”) and in English the KJV employs the clause “he that believes”.

viAn pronoun antecedent can be “cataphoric.” See reference i.

viiThe twelfth Judas Iscariot had hanged himself.

viiiCoffman’s Commentaries on the Bible. Mark 16:17.

ixPeople’s New Testament