FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS
FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS
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Question #1 > DO GOD AND MAN COOPERATE IN SALVATION?


 
Question #1 > DO GOD AND MAN COOPERATE IN SALVATION? ?
from "DO GOD AND MAN COOPERATE" Grace, a Free Ride to Heaven? APPENDIX X, a book by Gaylon West

DO GOD AND MAN COOPERATE IN SALVATION?

    There are two camps of pseudo-theology that explain salvation: (1) salvation is wholly of God or GRACE and (2) man saves himself by his own meritorious works.

    Man's doctrine: "Grace is the only thing that can bring freedom from sin, bondage, and destructive habits." http://ezinearticles.com/?Romans-5:17---The-Abundance-Of-Grace&id=3962795

    God has paid a price for salvation.

    The cross. God makes this price available. GRACE is operative in that it "teaches man" (Titus 2: 11). "Therefore they stayed there a long time, speaking boldly in the Lord, who was bearing witness to the word of His grace, granting signs and wonders to be done by their hands" (Acts 14:3). Man receives this grace through teaching. GRACE can be received in vain (2 Corinthians 6: 11).

    Therefore, any doctrine that excludes man in the matter of his salvation is fallacious and any theology that eliminates God and has man earning his own salvation is ridiculous! Actually, the truth lies between these extremes. Man does have active participation in his salvation: "Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling;" (Philippians 2:12).

MAN'S PART is necessary

    Paul isn't the only one to command us to "work out our salvation." Peter said it in the beginning on the day of Pentecost. Why did Peter make "Save Yourselves" a requirement of God's "grace" (Acts 2:39) IF GOD OFFERS "U.MERITED FAVOR"? Some answer that the Greek grammarian Robertson points out that the verb "save" is "passive"; hence, God does it all? Consider the passage. "Save yourselves ( ). First aorist passive of s[]. Literally, Be ye saved. " If the passive is to be emphasized, please notice, "Allow yourselves to be saved…." The real question then becomes how does one "allow oneself" to be saved? In other words, if the verb is passive it still has an intended action on part of the recipient of "allowing"! There is freedom of will inferred!

    What then happened on that day of Pentecost? Souls (3000) allowed themselves to be saved by receiving the gospel, the word of God’s GRACE (Acts 14:3), which commanded belief, repentance, and baptism (Acts 2: 36, 38; I Corinthians 15: 1, 2). God's grace is simply His favor of giving salvation to those that obey the Faith delivered in the gospel. Jesus is coming to take vengeance on those that know not God and obey not this gospel. (1 Thessalonians 1:8-10). Salvation is not accessible by any other means. This is why we should herald "Back to the Bible; to the gospel that was preached first on that day of Pentecost following the crucifixion and commisssion of the twelve apostles.

GRACE of GOD IS NEVER ALONE IN SAVING

    During our study one might have noticed that man is not saved by "grace only". We are not saved by grace alone, but we are saved "in this hope" (Romans 8:24); "by His life" (Romans 5:10); by His blood (Romans 5:9); "through fire" (1 Corinthians 3:15); (by) "by the destruction of the flesh" (1 Corinthians 5:5); "through faith" (Ephesians 2:8); by receiving the love of the truth (2 Thessalonians 2:10); by continuing "in faith, love, and holiness, with self-control" (1 Timothy 2:15); "according to His mercy" (Titus 3:5); and, "in like figure by baptism" (1 Peter 3:20).

    Grace definitely does not save an ungodly sinner in that state; that's what "unmerited favor" implies. "If the righteous one is scarcely saved, Where will the ungodly and the sinner appear?" (1 Peter 4:18). Who are the righteous? Those that have completed the above. "For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek. For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith" (Romans 1:16, 17).

    Who are the righteous since all have sinned and are "unrigheous" (Romans 3)? When the Bible speaks of righteousness, it is speaking of the righteousness revealed by God--not any "righteousness" invented by man. "For the wrath of man worketh not the righteousness of God" (James 1:20).

    "Who may dwell in Your holy hill? He who walks uprightly, works righteousness and speaks the truth" (Psalm 15:2). "Little children, let no one deceive you. He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He [Jesus] is righteous” (1 John 3:7).