FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS
FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS
After the Law is Nailed to Cross Question: Did God Allow Polygamy After the Law was fulfilled? Answer prepared by Gaylon West www.BibleStudyLessons.net
First, polygyny (a form of polygamy) was allowed under the Law of Moses. That is, men were allowed to have multiple wives. Wives were never allowed to have more than one husband.
` 1. THE "MATTHEW 19's COMMENTS ON DIVORCE" ARGUMENT: `
The passage below is on divorce but Jesus'
answer would according to this argument in principle apply to polygamy today as well since He appeals to
the "beginning." Matthew 19: 3-8 'The
Pharisees also came to Him, testing Him, and saying to Him, "Is it lawful
for a man to divorce his wife for just any reason?" And
He answered and said to them, "Have you not read that He who made them at
the beginning 'made them male and female,' "and said, 'For this
reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and
the two shall become one flesh'? "So then, they are no
longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man
separate." They said to Him, "Why then did Moses command
to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?"
He said to them, "Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted
you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so."' A.
The perception of "the will of God" argument:
B. While Jesus does
not specifically mention "polygamy", the principle of any second marriage
partner is argued to be covered by any resulting prohibition. The problem with using Matthew 19 is that in the context Jesus is re-stating the Law of Moses for the learned Pharisees (Genesis 2; Deuteronomy 24). The Law that Jesus referred to, allows
both divorces and polygamy. Divorce was allowed because of their
"hardness of heart." Jesus doesn't mention polygamy in this context. To me, the real argument should be:
Although Moses gave permission both in divorce and polygamy, and Jesus confirms
Moses' Law on divorce, neither Jesus nor His ordained spokesmen (apostles--Ephesians 5:31; 1 Corinthians, chapters 6,7)
give permission for any polygamy. The silence of the Scriptures speaks loudly on this point (Revelation 22:18,19). There is neither regulation nor law concerning
such polygamous marriages given by the apostles. 2. POLYGAMY
IS NEVER MENTIONED AS BEING ALLOWED OR REGULATED in the New Testament. Slavery
is allowed in the New Covenant and is regulated (e.g.,
Ephesians 6:5-9: "Bondservants, be obedient to those
who are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in
sincerity of heart, as to Christ; not with eyeservice,
as men-pleasers, but as bondservants of Christ, doing the will of God from the
heart, with goodwill doing service, as to the Lord, and not to men, knowing
that whatever good anyone does, he will receive the same from the Lord, whether
he is a slave or free. And you, masters, do the same things to them, giving up
threatening, knowing that your own Master also is in heaven, and there is no
partiality with Him.")
3. The ELDERSHIP argument is similar to the following: POLYGAMIST
PROTAGONIST'S ARGUMENT ON 1 TIMOTHY 3 The
polygamist argument for the qualification of the elder is that polygamy is
understood and accepted in 1 Timothy 3:1, 2: "This is
a faithful saying: If a man desires the position of a bishop, he desires a good
work. A bishop then must be blameless,
the husband of one wife." The "one" here, they say, should have been
translated "first" wife. Mias gunaikos. The
word "mias" can be translated either "one" or
"first." 1. But all the translators seem to be in
agreement that it should be "one" in this context. 2. What purpose would the Holy Spirit have in using a word like "first" in
this context? If he's married, he's
married. If he has a second wife, he's
married. Unless of
course the Holy Spirit wanted to exclude widowers even though they may have
several other wives. The bishop
can have as many wives as he wants, as long as he still has his "first"
one. It seems to me that they would want
to jump on the idea that he may have only "one" wife while others in the
congregation may have as many as they want? Matthew Matthew
Matthew
17:4 Then
answered Peter, and said unto Jesus, Lord, it is good for us to be here: if
thou wilt, let us make here three tabernacles; one[mias] for thee, and one[mias] for Moses, and one[mias] for Elijah. [NOTE: 3 tabernacles= mias + mias + mias; 1 + 1 + 1 = 3; the bishop is to have just "one" not
"first".] , Etc. The qualifications here do not allow
for anyone in leadership roles to have a multiplicity of wives. 4. PAUL'S DEFINITION OF MARRIAGE Jesus appointed twelve apostles. They held within their bosom, with the aid of the Holy Spirit, the teachings of Jesus. Jesus specifically called and appointed them. Jesus declared that the Holy Spirit would guide them into all truth (John 16:13). What He had not taught them (16:12), the Spirit would fill in the blanks (John 14:26). In addition,
He selected and appointed Paul as an apostle who also held the treasure of the Knowledge from Heaven. "But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the excellency of the power may be of God, and not of us" (2 Corinthians 4:7).
The following passages are attributed to the apostle Paul: "Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.
Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband.
The wife hath not power of her own body, but the husband: and likewise also the husband hath not power of his own body, but the wife" (1 Corinthians 7:2-4).
"Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge" (Hebrews 13:4).
The writer of each of these passages went to the trouble to be specific about man and woman avoiding fornication by being in an honorable marriage. He mentions two people. Male and female. One husband and one wife.
SMITH DICTIONARY: In the
Post-Babylonian period, monogamy appears to have become more prevalent than at
any previous time. The practice of polygamy nevertheless still existed; Herod
the Great had no less than nine wives at one time. CONCLUSION:
There is no authority for polygamy; just as there is no
authority for playing musical instruments in worship to God; there is no authority for clapping to
God or dancing to God; there is no authority for offering animal sacrifices to
God. God has made it clear what pleases
Him. It remains for man to humble
himself and praise God by his living by FAITH (Rom. Since God does not say "Thou shalt not take
more than one wife" the revisionists of today, who use this as their guide in
doing what they like to do, such as adding instrumental music to their worship, will find it hard to argue against polygamy. GW |